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Reproductive Health and Prenatal Development – Quiz 1

Question 1 of 72

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about checking basal body temperature to identify ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?

Select one answer.

Review all questions in this quiz

Reproductive Health and Prenatal Development – Quiz 1 Practice Questions

Review these Reproductive Health and Prenatal Development – Quiz 1 nursing practice questions with answer choices and explanations.

Question 1

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about checking basal body temperature to identify ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?

  1. 1 hour after sexual intercourse
  2. Immediately after getting into bed at night
  3. Every morning before arising
  4. Only on days 13 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Every morning before arising

Explanation: Basal body temperature must be measured every morning before getting out of bed. A slight temperature increase occurs after ovulation due to progesterone.

Question 2

The almond-shaped area of the female genitalia enclosed by the labia minora that contains openings to the urethra, Skene's glands, vagina, and Bartholin's glands is called the:

  1. Mons pubis
  2. Vestibule
  3. Fourchette
  4. Symphysis pubis
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Vestibule

Explanation: The vestibule is the area between the labia minora containing the openings to the urethra, vagina, and associated glands.

Question 3

A pregnant client worries she cannot breastfeed because her breasts are small. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Breast enlargement surgery might help
  2. You should discuss formula feeding with your provider
  3. Your breasts will enlarge during pregnancy
  4. Breast size does not determine milk production
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Breast size does not determine milk production

Explanation: Milk production depends on glandular tissue and hormones, not breast size.

Question 4

A digital rectal exam can be used to assess which structure?

  1. Prostate
  2. Oviducts
  3. Ovaries
  4. Testes
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Prostate

Explanation: The prostate gland lies adjacent to the rectum and can be palpated during a digital rectal exam.

Question 5

Which finding is a contraindication to diaphragm use?

  1. Client smokes cigarettes
  2. Client has multiple sexual partners
  3. Client delivered vaginally 6 months ago
  4. Client is 42 years old
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Client has multiple sexual partners

Explanation: Diaphragms provide little protection against sexually transmitted infections, making them less appropriate for individuals with multiple partners.

Question 6

Why is the birth weight of monozygotic twins often below average?

  1. Inadequate placental nutrition
  2. Inadequate maternal blood supply
  3. Limited uterine space
  4. Poor maternal health
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Limited uterine space

Explanation: Two fetuses sharing the same uterine environment have limited space for growth.

Question 7

Which instruction should be given before a Pap smear?

  1. Empty your bladder beforehand
  2. Sign an informed consent
  3. Douche the night before
  4. Expect sedation during the test
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Empty your bladder beforehand

Explanation: Emptying the bladder improves comfort during the pelvic exam. Douching should be avoided before Pap testing.

Question 8

Where does implantation normally occur?

  1. Upper posterior uterine wall
  2. Lower uterus near cervix
  3. Inner third of fallopian tube
  4. Lateral uterine wall
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Upper posterior uterine wall

Explanation: Implantation most often occurs in the upper posterior wall of the uterus.

Question 9

Which explanation correctly describes how a baby's sex is determined?

  1. A Y-chromosome sperm produces a boy
  2. The ovum determines the baby's sex
  3. Acidic vaginal pH produces girls
  4. There is a 75% chance of a girl
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. A Y-chromosome sperm produces a boy

Explanation: The sperm determines the sex. Y chromosome produces male; X produces female.

Question 10

Which are the primary germ layers of embryonic development?

  1. Endoderm
  2. Ectoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Morula
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Morula

Explanation: The germ layers are ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Morula is an early embryo stage, not a germ layer.

Question 11

The embryo becomes a fetus at what stage?

  1. 2 weeks
  2. 4 weeks
  3. 9 weeks
  4. 16 weeks
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 9 weeks

Explanation: The fetal stage begins at the start of week 9 of pregnancy.

Question 12

A pregnant woman fears dying during childbirth. What is the best response?

  1. Maternal mortality is very low
  2. You will be monitored
  3. Tell me why you are afraid
  4. Pain relief is available
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Tell me why you are afraid

Explanation: Open-ended communication encourages the client to express fears and cultural concerns.

Question 13

How long is an ovum fertile after ovulation?

  1. 24 hours
  2. 1 week
  3. Until menstruation
  4. 4 hours
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 24 hours

Explanation: The ovum remains viable for about 24 hours after ovulation.

Question 14

What is the purpose of progesterone during the secretory phase?

  1. Regenerate the endometrium
  2. Decrease blood flow
  3. Prepare endometrium for implantation
  4. Increase cervical mucus elasticity
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Prepare endometrium for implantation

Explanation: Progesterone stabilizes and prepares the uterine lining for implantation.

Question 15

Where does fertilization most commonly occur?

  1. Outer third of fallopian tube
  2. Lower uterus
  3. Cervix
  4. Upper uterus
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Outer third of fallopian tube

Explanation: Fertilization most often occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

Question 16

When should a diaphragm typically be replaced?

  1. Every 3 years
  2. Every year
  3. After a urinary infection
  4. After significant weight change
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. After significant weight change

Explanation: Weight changes can alter pelvic anatomy and require diaphragm refitting.

Question 17

A normal umbilical cord contains:

  1. 1 artery and 2 veins
  2. 2 arteries and 2 veins
  3. 2 arteries and 1 vein
  4. 1 artery and 1 vein
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 2 arteries and 1 vein

Explanation: The umbilical cord normally contains two arteries and one vein.

Question 18

How long can sperm survive in the female reproductive tract?

  1. 12 hours
  2. 5 days
  3. 1 hour
  4. 30 minutes
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 5 days

Explanation: Sperm can survive up to five days, allowing pregnancy even if intercourse occurs before ovulation.

Question 19

Which statement about implantation is incorrect?

  1. Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube
  2. Spotting may occur during implantation
  3. Implantation occurs 2–3 weeks after conception
  4. Sperm survive 2–3 days
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Implantation occurs 2–3 weeks after conception

Explanation: Implantation typically occurs about 6–10 days after fertilization, not 2–3 weeks.

Question 20

Polyhydramnios is commonly associated with:

  1. Fetal gastrointestinal abnormalities
  2. Growth restriction
  3. Maternal hypertension
  4. Placental insufficiency
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Fetal gastrointestinal abnormalities

Explanation: GI defects like esophageal atresia prevent fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid.

Question 21

Which statement indicates correct diaphragm use?

  1. Avoid spermicidal cream
  2. Leave in place at least 6 hours after intercourse
  3. Use oil lubricant
  4. Replace every year
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Leave in place at least 6 hours after intercourse

Explanation: The diaphragm must remain in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.

Question 22

Which glands lubricate the vagina?

  1. Montgomery glands
  2. Bartholin glands
  3. Cowper glands
  4. Skene glands
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Bartholin glands

Explanation: Bartholin glands secrete mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.

Question 23

Which instruction is correct before semen analysis?

  1. Refrigerate specimen
  2. Collect using spermicidal condom
  3. Abstain from ejaculation for 2–3 days
  4. Keep sample 4 hours before transport
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Abstain from ejaculation for 2–3 days

Explanation: Abstinence for 2–3 days improves accuracy of sperm count analysis.

Question 24

Which client has a contraindication to oral contraceptives?

  1. Blood pressure 140/90
  2. Cycle every 14 days
  3. Teen with acne
  4. Hematocrit 39%
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Blood pressure 140/90

Explanation: Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular complications with hormonal contraception.

Question 25

Which statement about condoms requires follow-up teaching?

  1. Use oil-based lubricants
  2. Place before ejaculation
  3. Check expiration date
  4. Use a new condom each time
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Use oil-based lubricants

Explanation: Oil-based lubricants weaken latex condoms and increase breakage risk.

Question 26

Which statement about male fertility and underwear is correct?

  1. Underwear makes no difference
  2. Briefs are best
  3. Heat can reduce sperm production
  4. This is a myth
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Heat can reduce sperm production

Explanation: Increased scrotal temperature can reduce sperm production.

Question 27

What is the fetal age of viability?

  1. 15 weeks
  2. 30 weeks
  3. 25 weeks
  4. 20 weeks
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 25 weeks

Explanation: Viability typically occurs around 24–25 weeks with intensive care support.

Question 28

Which is the best response when a 15-year-old asks about contraception?

  1. You need parental consent
  2. The doctor will decide
  3. You are too young
  4. Tell me about your sexual activity
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Tell me about your sexual activity

Explanation: Assessment of sexual activity helps determine the most appropriate contraceptive method.

Question 29

Which hormone supports sperm formation and male secondary sex characteristics?

  1. Progesterone
  2. hCG
  3. Testosterone
  4. ACTH
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Testosterone

Explanation: Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone responsible for spermatogenesis and secondary sexual traits.

Question 30

Which is NOT a function of amniotic fluid?

  1. Maintain temperature
  2. Cushion fetus
  3. Impede fetal movement
  4. Allow movement and growth
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Impede fetal movement

Explanation: Amniotic fluid allows, not restricts, fetal movement.

Question 31

Giving families control over health care decisions is called:

  1. Regulation
  2. Insight
  3. Empowerment
  4. Compliance
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Empowerment

Explanation: Empowerment refers to enabling families to make informed decisions about care.

Question 32

Which pelvic type is best suited for childbirth?

  1. Android
  2. Platypelloid
  3. Gynecoid
  4. Anthropoid
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Gynecoid

Explanation: The gynecoid pelvis is considered the ideal shape for vaginal birth.

Question 33

Implantation in the fallopian tube is called:

  1. Ectopic pregnancy
  2. Menstrual pregnancy
  3. Normal pregnancy
  4. Embryonic pregnancy
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Ectopic pregnancy

Explanation: An ectopic pregnancy occurs when implantation happens outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube.

Question 34

A disadvantage of freestanding birth centers is:

  1. Higher infection risk
  2. Limited ability to manage complications
  3. Higher cost
  4. Short stays required
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Limited ability to manage complications

Explanation: Birth centers may lack advanced technology needed for emergency complications.

Question 35

What is the function of the vas deferens?

  1. Carry urine
  2. Transport testosterone
  3. Transport sperm from epididymis to urethra
  4. No known function
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Transport sperm from epididymis to urethra

Explanation: The vas deferens transports sperm from the epididymis toward the urethra.

Question 36

If two amnions and two placentas are present, the twins are most likely:

  1. Monozygotic
  2. Dizygotic
  3. Conjoined
  4. High birth weight
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Dizygotic

Explanation: Dizygotic (fraternal) twins typically develop with two placentas and two amniotic sacs.

Question 37

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about checking basal body temperature to identify ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?

  1. 1 hour after sexual intercourse
  2. Immediately after getting into bed at night
  3. Every morning before arising
  4. Only on days 13 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Every morning before arising

Explanation: Basal body temperature must be measured every morning before getting out of bed. A slight temperature increase occurs after ovulation due to progesterone.

Question 38

The almond-shaped area of the female genitalia enclosed by the labia minora that contains openings to the urethra, Skene's glands, vagina, and Bartholin's glands is called the:

  1. Mons pubis
  2. Vestibule
  3. Fourchette
  4. Symphysis pubis
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Vestibule

Explanation: The vestibule is the area between the labia minora containing the openings to the urethra, vagina, and associated glands.

Question 39

A pregnant client worries she cannot breastfeed because her breasts are small. What is the most appropriate response?

  1. Breast enlargement surgery might help
  2. You should discuss formula feeding with your provider
  3. Your breasts will enlarge during pregnancy
  4. Breast size does not determine milk production
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Breast size does not determine milk production

Explanation: Milk production depends on glandular tissue and hormones, not breast size.

Question 40

A digital rectal exam can be used to assess which structure?

  1. Prostate
  2. Oviducts
  3. Ovaries
  4. Testes
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Prostate

Explanation: The prostate gland lies adjacent to the rectum and can be palpated during a digital rectal exam.

Question 41

Which finding is a contraindication to diaphragm use?

  1. Client smokes cigarettes
  2. Client has multiple sexual partners
  3. Client delivered vaginally 6 months ago
  4. Client is 42 years old
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Client has multiple sexual partners

Explanation: Diaphragms provide little protection against sexually transmitted infections, making them less appropriate for individuals with multiple partners.

Question 42

Why is the birth weight of monozygotic twins often below average?

  1. Inadequate placental nutrition
  2. Inadequate maternal blood supply
  3. Limited uterine space
  4. Poor maternal health
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Limited uterine space

Explanation: Two fetuses sharing the same uterine environment have limited space for growth.

Question 43

Which instruction should be given before a Pap smear?

  1. Empty your bladder beforehand
  2. Sign an informed consent
  3. Douche the night before
  4. Expect sedation during the test
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Empty your bladder beforehand

Explanation: Emptying the bladder improves comfort during the pelvic exam. Douching should be avoided before Pap testing.

Question 44

Where does implantation normally occur?

  1. Upper posterior uterine wall
  2. Lower uterus near cervix
  3. Inner third of fallopian tube
  4. Lateral uterine wall
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Upper posterior uterine wall

Explanation: Implantation most often occurs in the upper posterior wall of the uterus.

Question 45

Which explanation correctly describes how a baby's sex is determined?

  1. A Y-chromosome sperm produces a boy
  2. The ovum determines the baby's sex
  3. Acidic vaginal pH produces girls
  4. There is a 75% chance of a girl
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. A Y-chromosome sperm produces a boy

Explanation: The sperm determines the sex. Y chromosome produces male; X produces female.

Question 46

Which are the primary germ layers of embryonic development?

  1. Endoderm
  2. Ectoderm
  3. Mesoderm
  4. Morula
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Morula

Explanation: The germ layers are ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Morula is an early embryo stage, not a germ layer.

Question 47

The embryo becomes a fetus at what stage?

  1. 2 weeks
  2. 4 weeks
  3. 9 weeks
  4. 16 weeks
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 9 weeks

Explanation: The fetal stage begins at the start of week 9 of pregnancy.

Question 48

A pregnant woman fears dying during childbirth. What is the best response?

  1. Maternal mortality is very low
  2. You will be monitored
  3. Tell me why you are afraid
  4. Pain relief is available
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Tell me why you are afraid

Explanation: Open-ended communication encourages the client to express fears and cultural concerns.

Question 49

How long is an ovum fertile after ovulation?

  1. 24 hours
  2. 1 week
  3. Until menstruation
  4. 4 hours
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 24 hours

Explanation: The ovum remains viable for about 24 hours after ovulation.

Question 50

What is the purpose of progesterone during the secretory phase?

  1. Regenerate the endometrium
  2. Decrease blood flow
  3. Prepare endometrium for implantation
  4. Increase cervical mucus elasticity
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Prepare endometrium for implantation

Explanation: Progesterone stabilizes and prepares the uterine lining for implantation.

Question 51

Where does fertilization most commonly occur?

  1. Outer third of fallopian tube
  2. Lower uterus
  3. Cervix
  4. Upper uterus
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Outer third of fallopian tube

Explanation: Fertilization most often occurs in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.

Question 52

When should a diaphragm typically be replaced?

  1. Every 3 years
  2. Every year
  3. After a urinary infection
  4. After significant weight change
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. After significant weight change

Explanation: Weight changes can alter pelvic anatomy and require diaphragm refitting.

Question 53

A normal umbilical cord contains:

  1. 1 artery and 2 veins
  2. 2 arteries and 2 veins
  3. 2 arteries and 1 vein
  4. 1 artery and 1 vein
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 2 arteries and 1 vein

Explanation: The umbilical cord normally contains two arteries and one vein.

Question 54

How long can sperm survive in the female reproductive tract?

  1. 12 hours
  2. 5 days
  3. 1 hour
  4. 30 minutes
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 5 days

Explanation: Sperm can survive up to five days, allowing pregnancy even if intercourse occurs before ovulation.

Question 55

Which statement about implantation is incorrect?

  1. Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube
  2. Spotting may occur during implantation
  3. Implantation occurs 2–3 weeks after conception
  4. Sperm survive 2–3 days
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Implantation occurs 2–3 weeks after conception

Explanation: Implantation typically occurs about 6–10 days after fertilization, not 2–3 weeks.

Question 56

Polyhydramnios is commonly associated with:

  1. Fetal gastrointestinal abnormalities
  2. Growth restriction
  3. Maternal hypertension
  4. Placental insufficiency
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Fetal gastrointestinal abnormalities

Explanation: GI defects like esophageal atresia prevent fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid.

Question 57

Which statement indicates correct diaphragm use?

  1. Avoid spermicidal cream
  2. Leave in place at least 6 hours after intercourse
  3. Use oil lubricant
  4. Replace every year
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Leave in place at least 6 hours after intercourse

Explanation: The diaphragm must remain in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.

Question 58

Which glands lubricate the vagina?

  1. Montgomery glands
  2. Bartholin glands
  3. Cowper glands
  4. Skene glands
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Bartholin glands

Explanation: Bartholin glands secrete mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.

Question 59

Which instruction is correct before semen analysis?

  1. Refrigerate specimen
  2. Collect using spermicidal condom
  3. Abstain from ejaculation for 2–3 days
  4. Keep sample 4 hours before transport
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Abstain from ejaculation for 2–3 days

Explanation: Abstinence for 2–3 days improves accuracy of sperm count analysis.

Question 60

Which client has a contraindication to oral contraceptives?

  1. Blood pressure 140/90
  2. Cycle every 14 days
  3. Teen with acne
  4. Hematocrit 39%
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Blood pressure 140/90

Explanation: Hypertension increases the risk of cardiovascular complications with hormonal contraception.

Question 61

Which statement about condoms requires follow-up teaching?

  1. Use oil-based lubricants
  2. Place before ejaculation
  3. Check expiration date
  4. Use a new condom each time
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Use oil-based lubricants

Explanation: Oil-based lubricants weaken latex condoms and increase breakage risk.

Question 62

Which statement about male fertility and underwear is correct?

  1. Underwear makes no difference
  2. Briefs are best
  3. Heat can reduce sperm production
  4. This is a myth
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Heat can reduce sperm production

Explanation: Increased scrotal temperature can reduce sperm production.

Question 63

What is the fetal age of viability?

  1. 15 weeks
  2. 30 weeks
  3. 25 weeks
  4. 20 weeks
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. 25 weeks

Explanation: Viability typically occurs around 24–25 weeks with intensive care support.

Question 64

Which is the best response when a 15-year-old asks about contraception?

  1. You need parental consent
  2. The doctor will decide
  3. You are too young
  4. Tell me about your sexual activity
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Tell me about your sexual activity

Explanation: Assessment of sexual activity helps determine the most appropriate contraceptive method.

Question 65

Which hormone supports sperm formation and male secondary sex characteristics?

  1. Progesterone
  2. hCG
  3. Testosterone
  4. ACTH
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Testosterone

Explanation: Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone responsible for spermatogenesis and secondary sexual traits.

Question 66

Which is NOT a function of amniotic fluid?

  1. Maintain temperature
  2. Cushion fetus
  3. Impede fetal movement
  4. Allow movement and growth
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Impede fetal movement

Explanation: Amniotic fluid allows, not restricts, fetal movement.

Question 67

Giving families control over health care decisions is called:

  1. Regulation
  2. Insight
  3. Empowerment
  4. Compliance
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Empowerment

Explanation: Empowerment refers to enabling families to make informed decisions about care.

Question 68

Which pelvic type is best suited for childbirth?

  1. Android
  2. Platypelloid
  3. Gynecoid
  4. Anthropoid
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Gynecoid

Explanation: The gynecoid pelvis is considered the ideal shape for vaginal birth.

Question 69

Implantation in the fallopian tube is called:

  1. Ectopic pregnancy
  2. Menstrual pregnancy
  3. Normal pregnancy
  4. Embryonic pregnancy
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Ectopic pregnancy

Explanation: An ectopic pregnancy occurs when implantation happens outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tube.

Question 70

A disadvantage of freestanding birth centers is:

  1. Higher infection risk
  2. Limited ability to manage complications
  3. Higher cost
  4. Short stays required
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Limited ability to manage complications

Explanation: Birth centers may lack advanced technology needed for emergency complications.

Question 71

What is the function of the vas deferens?

  1. Carry urine
  2. Transport testosterone
  3. Transport sperm from epididymis to urethra
  4. No known function
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Transport sperm from epididymis to urethra

Explanation: The vas deferens transports sperm from the epididymis toward the urethra.

Question 72

If two amnions and two placentas are present, the twins are most likely:

  1. Monozygotic
  2. Dizygotic
  3. Conjoined
  4. High birth weight
View answer and explanation

Correct answer:

  1. Dizygotic

Explanation: Dizygotic (fraternal) twins typically develop with two placentas and two amniotic sacs.